Free IBSC TR-C practice questions with answers

Twenty-five original, source-verified IBSC TR-C questions with full answers and rationale below, free to read, no account required. A new set every day.

1. Question 1

   A conscious casualty who can swallow is being held in the warm zone with a confirmed delay in evacuation. His bleeding is controlled and he is not in shock. What does TECC permit?

   • Nothing by mouth until a clinician has assessed him
   • He may eat freely
   • He may drink clear liquidsCorrect
   • He may drink only if a blood glucose reading is normal

   Why: TECC states that if the casualty is not altered, is awake and is able to follow commands, he may drink clear liquids provided he is conscious, can swallow, and there is a confirmed delay in evacuation to care. All three conditions carry weight: consciousness and the ability to swallow protect against aspiration, and the confirmed delay is what makes oral intake worth the small risk rather than an unnecessary one before a short transport. A blanket prohibition on oral intake leaves a casualty dehydrating through a long hold. Unrestricted food is a different proposition, since solid intake matters if surgery follows. Primary reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Indirect Threat Care/Warm Zone, p. 11. Cross-reference: Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Guidelines, 01 May 2026, Tactical Field Care, Fluid Resuscitation, p. 6.

2. Question 2

   A team member at altitude becomes ataxic and confused, having had a headache and nausea all day. What is the recognition, and what does guidance say about starting treatment on scene?

   • Heat exhaustion at altitude; cool him and rehydrate him before considering any descent from the position
   • Acute mountain sickness; treat him in place with rest for one to two days and reassess him each morning
   • High-altitude pulmonary oedema; begin supplemental oxygen and observe him overnight at the current altitude
   • High-altitude cerebral oedema; begin treatment while coordinating evacuation, but do not delay evacuationCorrect

   Why: The international criteria are met: ataxia or altered mental status in the presence of acute mountain sickness establishes high-altitude cerebral oedema, and ataxia together with altered mental status does so even without antecedent acute mountain sickness. Guidance calls it life-threatening, makes emergency evacuation a priority, directs beginning treatment while coordinating evacuation, and states plainly that evacuation is not to be delayed for those therapies. Treating this in place as simple mountain sickness, or holding overnight on oxygen, forfeits the one intervention that works. Primary reference: JTS CPG, Altitude Emergencies in a Prehospital Environment, 05 Mar 2024, pp. 8 to 9.

3. Question 3

   A casualty is being secured to a litter for evacuation with a monitor travelling alongside. What does the JTS en route care packaging guidance direct?

   • A single chest strap suffices for movement over short distances on the ground
   • Use the equipment litter straps for the casualty if straps run short
   • Secure monitors to the casualty's torso so they stay in view
   • Use separate straps for the casualty and for equipment, with at least two on the casualtyCorrect

   Why: The guidance directs that all casualties be secured with a minimum of two strap-style devices, that no equipment rest on the casualty, and that securing devices such as litter straps used for equipment not be used for the casualty. It also directs that monitors be placed on the litter structure so that all team members can see them and that tubing and wires be secured to prevent snaring or disconnection during movement. A single chest strap allows the casualty to shift during a carry or a vertical lift. Equipment resting on or strapped to the casualty transfers its weight and its movement to him and can obstruct the interventions underneath. Primary reference: JTS CPG, En Route Care Patient Packaging, 21 Aug 2024, p. 4. Cross-reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Indirect Threat Care/Warm Zone, p. 10.

4. Question 4

   What definition does doctrine give for a mass casualty situation?

   • A situation where casualties exceed the available medical capability to treat and evacuate themCorrect
   • A situation in which a jurisdiction has to request mutual aid from a neighbouring jurisdiction
   • Any incident producing more than ten casualties, whatever the capability available to treat them
   • Any incident in which more than one casualty requires evacuation by air rather than by ground

   Why: Doctrine defines a mass casualty situation as one in which the number of casualties exceeds the available medical capability to rapidly treat and evacuate them, which makes it a relationship between load and capability rather than a head count. The same relative definition appears in the national triage criteria, which define mass casualty triage as prioritising multiple victims when resources are not sufficient to treat everyone immediately. A fixed number, an air requirement and a mutual aid request are all consequences that may or may not follow. Primary reference: ATP 4-02.13, Casualty Evacuation, 30 June 2021, para 7-1, p. 7-1.

5. Question 5

   Which casualty best matches the indication TECC gives for considering tranexamic acid?

   • A casualty with a closed tibial fracture and normal vital signs
   • A casualty with a superficial gunshot graze to the flank
   • A casualty with a scalp laceration bleeding briskly
   • A casualty in shock with multiple traumatic amputationsCorrect

   Why: TECC ties the indication to injuries that could potentially require significant blood transfusion, and gives as its examples a casualty presenting in hemorrhagic shock in the setting of penetrating torso trauma, multiple amputations, or evidence of severe uncontrolled internal or external bleeding. A casualty in shock with multiple amputations meets two of those criteria at once. A closed tibial fracture with normal vital signs and a superficial graze imply no transfusion requirement. A briskly bleeding scalp laceration looks dramatic but is controlled by direct pressure and does not on its own predict a transfusion. Primary reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Indirect Threat Care/Warm Zone, p. 7. Cross-reference: Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Guidelines, 01 May 2026, Tactical Field Care, Tranexamic Acid, p. 6.

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7. Question 6

   An officer with a painful closed forearm injury and a separate bleeding laceration asks for something for the pain during a prolonged hold. Which over-the-counter choice does TECC support, and why?

   • Ibuprofen, because it also reduces swelling at the fracture site itself
   • Aspirin, because it is the best tolerated oral analgesic
   • Acetaminophen, because traditional NSAIDs interfere with platelet functionCorrect
   • Naproxen, because its longer duration suits a prolonged hold

   Why: TECC directs avoiding traditional non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications such as aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen and ketorolac in this setting, because they interfere with platelet function and may exacerbate bleeding, and states that acetaminophen by mouth or intravenously can provide effective pain control, especially when combined with other non-opioid medications. The reasoning is specific to the trauma casualty: the anti-inflammatory and analgesic benefit is bought at the cost of the platelet aggregation the casualty is relying on to hold a clot. Each of the other three choices is a traditional NSAID and carries exactly the effect the guideline warns against. Primary reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Indirect Threat Care/Warm Zone, p. 10. Cross-reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Evacuation Care/Cold Zone, pp. 16-17.

8. Question 7

   Darts from a conducted energy device are embedded in a subject's skin. Under what circumstance does the national study say the subject needs medical care rather than on-scene dart removal by trained personnel?

   • Only when a dart has penetrated an item of clothing before reaching the skin and may have carried fibres in
   • Whenever more than one dart is embedded, since the second dart marks the current path through tissue
   • Darts in the face, eyes, neck, genitals or groin, or concern for underlying injury regardless of siteCorrect
   • Whenever the subject remains handcuffed, because removal requires the subject's cooperation and consent

   Why: In most cases embedded darts may be removed at the scene by properly trained medical or law enforcement personnel following local protocol, with care taken against bloodborne pathogen exposure and the additional spines on newer projectiles. The stated exceptions are darts in potentially vulnerable areas, named as the face, eyes, neck, genitals or groin, or any concern for underlying injury regardless of body location. Dart count, restraint status and whether clothing was penetrated are not the criteria. Primary reference: Study of Deaths Following Electro Muscular Disruption (NCJ 233432), National Institute of Justice, May 2011, p. 33.

9. Question 8

   Under TCCC, which finding is an indication to apply a pelvic binder?

   • Any fall from a height greater than ten feet onto a hard surface
   • Severe blunt force or blast injury with a major lower limb amputationCorrect
   • A penetrating wound of the buttock that is bleeding briskly
   • A complaint of low back pain after a vehicle collision

   Why: TCCC directs applying a pelvic binder for suspected pelvic fracture, defined as severe blunt force or blast injury together with at least one of pelvic pain, any major lower limb amputation or near amputation, physical examination findings suggestive of a pelvic fracture, unconsciousness, or shock. The construction is deliberate: the mechanism alone is not enough, and one of the listed findings must accompany it. A fall of a stated height is not one of TCCC's criteria. A penetrating buttock wound calls for hemorrhage control rather than a binder, and isolated low back pain without a severe mechanism does not meet the definition. Primary reference: Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Guidelines, 01 May 2026, Tactical Field Care, Circulation, p. 5. Cross-reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Evacuation Care/Cold Zone, p. 16.

10. Question 9

    A vehicle is available to move casualties from a collection point, and human remains also need moving. What does doctrine direct?

    • Remains may only be moved by medical evacuation platforms
    • Move remains first, since the casualties are already under care
    • Move both together to conserve vehicles, with the remains secured at the rear
    • Casualties being evacuated should not be moved on the same vehicle as human remainsCorrect

    Why: Doctrine states plainly that casualties being evacuated should not be moved on the same vehicle with human remains, and it treats the movement of remains as a logistic function organised by the company executive officer and the battalion logistics staff rather than a medical one. That also rules out the claim that only medical platforms may carry remains. Combining the two loads is precisely the consolidation the rule forbids, and prioritising remains over living casualties inverts the purpose of the asset. Primary reference: ATP 4-02.13, Casualty Evacuation, 30 June 2021, para 1-52, p. 1-10.

11. Question 10

    An explosives detection dog team arrives while officers guard an unattended backpack. What does doctrine say the dog team is for?

    • Clearing the interior of the backpack before disposal personnel arrive
    • Searching the surrounding area for hidden secondary devicesCorrect
    • Tracking the person who left the backpack
    • Confirming whether the backpack contains explosives

    Why: Doctrine carries an explicit note that military working dogs do not verify suspicious packages; they search the surrounding area for hidden secondary devices. Confirming whether a device or substance is present is explosive ordnance disposal's job, and the same passage forbids disturbing a discovered item at all, which rules out any clearing of its interior. Tracking is a different canine capability from explosives detection. Primary reference: ATP 3-39.10, Police Operations, 24 July 2026, para C-26 note, p. 239.

12. Question 11

    A responder in Australia is bitten by a funnel web spider. Which prehospital measure does envenomation guidance direct, and when may it be removed?

    • No bandaging of any kind, because any compression at all accelerates systemic absorption of the venom
    • A tourniquet above the bite, tightened until the distal pulse is lost and removed once the limb becomes painful
    • Pressure immobilisation limiting lymphatic spread without restricting blood flow, left on until antivenom is readyCorrect
    • Cold packs over the bite site and the proximal limb, removed after 20 minutes and reapplied hourly in transport

    Why: Funnel web venom is one of the few animal venoms that undergoes local inactivation, so guidance directs prehospital pressure immobilisation with an elastic crepe bandage applied tightly enough to limit lymphatic spread but not to restrict blood flow, transport with the bandage in place, and removal only once antivenom is readily available to administer. That is the opposite of the snakebite rule and the difference turns on the local inactivation. A tourniquet is not the measure described, and cold packs are not part of the guidance. Primary reference: JTS CPG, Spider and Scorpion Envenomation, 21 Jul 2026, p. 7.

13. Question 12

    An officer is bitten on the forearm by a pit viper during a rural search. A colleague suggests a constricting band above the bite and a commercial venom extractor. What does snakebite guidance say?

    • Apply the band but not the extractor, because restricting lymphatic flow limits the spread of the venom
    • Apply the extractor but not the band, because suction removes venom without restricting arterial flow
    • Apply neither: constricting bands may worsen local tissue injury and venom extractors are outdatedCorrect
    • Apply both, provided each of them is removed again within 30 minutes of the time of application

    Why: Guidance directs plainly that constricting bandages and tourniquets not be applied because they may worsen local tissue injury and increase the risk of permanent disability, and it lists venom extractors and commercial snakebite first aid kits among the outdated interventions that should not be performed, alongside cutting, sucking, electrocuting, burning and applying chemicals. Where a tourniquet is already in place it is not removed until the team is ready to treat and resuscitate, because rapid decompensation can follow release. Primary reference: JTS CPG, Snakebite Envenomation, 26 Apr 2026, pp. 17 and 28.

14. Question 13

    A tactical team medic is asked to justify time spent on field hygiene during mission planning. What does Army force health protection doctrine say about the relative loss of personnel to disease and non-battle injury?

    • Historically disease losses have only mattered in tropical theatres of operation
    • Historically more personnel are lost to disease and non-battle injury than to combat woundsCorrect
    • Historically the two causes have been close to equal in every conflict since 1945
    • Historically combat wounds have outnumbered disease losses by roughly three to one

    Why: Doctrine opens its preventive medicine chapter with the historical finding that more personnel are lost to disease and non-battle injury than to combat wounds, which is precisely why hygiene, field sanitation, rest and stress management are treated as a leader responsibility rather than a medical afterthought. The claims of parity, of combat wounds predominating, and of the problem being confined to the tropics all understate a finding the source states without qualification. Primary reference: ATP 4-02.8, Force Health Protection, chapter 2 opening, p. 2-1.

15. Question 14

    A casualty must be moved down two flights of interior stairs in a stairwell too narrow for a litter. Which manual technique is described for moving a casualty up or down stairs?

    • Cradle-drop dragCorrect
    • Saddleback carry
    • Neck drag
    • Pack-strap carry

    Why: The cradle-drop drag supports the casualty's head and upper body on the rescuer's forearms while the hips and legs are allowed to drop from step to step, and doctrine names it specifically for stairs and for maintaining a low profile. The neck drag is a crawling technique across the ground. The pack-strap and saddleback carries put the casualty high on the rescuer's back, which is unstable on stairs, and the saddleback additionally requires a conscious casualty who can hold on. Primary reference: ATP 4-02.13, Casualty Evacuation, 30 June 2021, para 2-26, p. 2-13.

16. Question 15

    What do the national triage criteria say about vital signs during initial mass casualty assessment?

    • A pulse oximeter reading must be obtained wherever one is available
    • Capillary refill should be used as the sole indicator of peripheral perfusion, because it is fastest
    • A respiratory rate and pulse rate must be counted for every patient
    • Assessment must not require counting or timing vital signs, and diagnostic equipment must not be usedCorrect

    Why: The criteria require assessment to use yes-or-no findings rather than counted or timed vital signs, and state that diagnostic equipment must not be used for initial assessment, because either would slow triage past the point of usefulness. A separate criterion says capillary refill must not be used as the sole indicator of peripheral perfusion, so relying on it alone is doubly wrong. The criteria also require the system to be simple, rapid and practical in an austere environment. Primary reference: FICEMS, Model Uniform Core Criteria for Mass Casualty Incident Triage: Addendum for EMTs, p. 4.

17. Question 16

    What is the normal rectal temperature range for a military working dog, as printed on the K9TCCC card?

    • 96 to 99 degrees Fahrenheit
    • 103 to 105 degrees Fahrenheit
    • 99 to 102.5 degrees FahrenheitCorrect
    • 105.8 to 107 degrees Fahrenheit

    Why: Both the K9TCCC card's vital signs block and the JTS canine heat injury guideline give the normal rectal temperature as 99 to 102.5 degrees Fahrenheit, which is 37.2 to 39.2 degrees Celsius. Knowing that a dog's baseline is higher than a human's matters operationally, because a handler who applies human norms will read a normal working dog as febrile. The range 96 to 99 degrees would be hypothermic in a dog. The higher ranges are the abnormal territory: the guideline notes that fatal heat stroke has been associated with rectal temperatures as low as 105.8 degrees, and that heat stroke is most commonly seen above 107 degrees. Primary reference: K9 Tactical Combat Casualty Care (K9TCCC) Card, DD Form 3073, APR 2025, page 1 of 2. Cross-reference: JTS K9 CPG, Heat Injury (K9CPG:09), 29 Mar 2025, p. 2.

18. Question 17

    TECC's Evacuation Care guidance lists casualty types for whom oxygen administration may be of particular benefit. Which of the following appears on that list?

    • Any casualty who has received a limb tourniquet
    • A casualty at altitudeCorrect
    • A casualty with an isolated closed forearm fracture
    • A walking casualty

    Why: TECC lists altitude among the conditions associated with impaired oxygenation for which oxygen may be of benefit, alongside low saturation on pulse oximetry, altered mental status or unconsciousness, torso injury with dyspnea, chest injury with a known or suspected pneumothorax, and hemorrhagic shock. Having a tourniquet in place says nothing about oxygenation. An isolated closed forearm fracture and a fully alert, ambulatory casualty are the cases in which oxygen delivers no benefit and consumes a finite supply that another casualty may need. Primary reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Evacuation Care/Cold Zone, pp. 13-14. Cross-reference: Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Guidelines, 01 May 2026, Tactical Evacuation Care, p. 15.

19. Question 18

    A casualty has heavy bleeding from a wound high in the groin that no limb tourniquet can reach. What does TECC direct first?

    • Deep wound packing with direct pressureCorrect
    • A limb tourniquet applied above the hip joint
    • Leg elevation with a pelvic binder device
    • A vented chest seal over the groin wound

    Why: For junctional hemorrhage TECC directs the use of direct pressure and an appropriate pressure dressing with deep wound packing, using plain gauze or hemostatic gauze if available, and following the manufacturer's recommendation where one applies. A junctional tourniquet device is then applied immediately if one is available for anatomy where bleeding cannot easily be controlled by pressure and dressings, but packing and pressure are what the responder does while that device is being readied. There is no limb proximal to a high groin wound on which a limb tourniquet could be placed. Leg elevation and a pelvic binder address neither the vessel nor the wound track, and a chest seal has no hemostatic function. Primary reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Indirect Threat Care/Warm Zone, pp. 5-6. Cross-reference: Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Guidelines, 01 May 2026, Tactical Field Care, Massive Hemorrhage, p. 2.

20. Question 19

    Doctrine describes three levels of casualty evacuation support. Which carries the highest risk of morbidity, mortality and long-term disability for the casualty?

    • A platform of opportunityCorrect
    • All three carry equivalent risk once a combat lifesaver is aboard
    • Dedicated casualty evacuation
    • Designated casualty evacuation

    Why: The three levels are dedicated, with vehicles and crews trained, equipped and reserved exclusively for the mission; designated, where crews serve in other roles but are tasked as a contingency; and a platform of opportunity, any vehicle used when the situation requires it. Doctrine states that a platform of opportunity is not configured, equipped or crewed for the purpose and so carries the highest risk of morbidity and mortality and possibly increased long-term disability. A lifesaver aboard helps but does not equalise the three. Primary reference: ATP 4-02.13, Casualty Evacuation, 30 June 2021, para 1-8, p. 1-2.

21. Question 20

    An uninjured but distressed infant is being comforted during a prolonged warm-zone hold while awaiting evacuation with her family. Which analgesic measure does the TECC pediatric guidance describe for an infant?

    • Rhythmic rocking while the airway is held open manually
    • A pacifier dipped in honey
    • Cold compresses applied to the forehead
    • A pacifier or gloved finger dipped in a sugary solution, not honeyCorrect

    Why: The pediatric guidance states that in an infant sugar is a proven analgesic, and directs that if the airway is patent and the child is awake, the responder may dip a pacifier or a gloved finger into a sugary solution, expressly not honey, and offer it as often as needed. The exclusion of honey matters and is not incidental, because honey carries a risk of infant botulism. Cold compresses to the forehead are neither analgesic nor described in the guidance. Holding an awake infant's airway open manually is unnecessary and would distress the child further, which is the opposite of what the measure is for. Primary reference: TECC Guidelines for Pediatric Patients (C-TECC, 2025), Indirect Threat Care/Warm Zone, p. 8.

22. Question 21

    Doctrine describes a litter suspended between poles and dragged or carried by animals. When only one animal is used, why is one pole cut 8 to 10 inches longer than the other?

    • To produce a rocking rather than a jolting motion for the casualtyCorrect
    • To leave a handhold for a bearer to lift the dragging end
    • To let the longer pole act as a brake on descents
    • To offset the casualty's weight toward the animal

    Why: The travois is built with one pole 8 to 10 inches longer than the other and the small ends spread apart, and doctrine states the reason plainly: the offset gives the casualty a rocking motion instead of a jolting one as the trailing ends cross the ground. Bearers do lift the dragging end for hills, fords and obstacles, but that is a separate instruction and not the reason for the offset, and the offset is not a brake or a weight-shifting device. Primary reference: ATP 4-02.13, Casualty Evacuation, 30 June 2021, para 3-19, p. 3-11.

23. Question 22

    Under TECC, in which casualty group should permissive hypotension be used with particular caution?

    • Casualties over the age of 65
    • Casualties who have received tranexamic acid
    • Casualties with an isolated limb amputation
    • Casualties who are obviously pregnantCorrect

    Why: TECC twice qualifies its permissive hypotension direction with the instruction to use those strategies with caution in obviously pregnant patients. The reason is that the placenta has no capacity to autoregulate its perfusion, so a maternal pressure the mother tolerates may leave the fetus underperfused, and the mother's expanded blood volume can also mask the degree of hemorrhage. Advanced age, an isolated amputation and prior tranexamic acid are not the exception TECC names; the casualty with suspected severe traumatic brain injury is the other group treated differently, and for that casualty hypotension is avoided altogether. Primary reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Indirect Threat Care/Warm Zone, p. 8. Cross-reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Evacuation Care/Cold Zone, p. 15.

24. Question 23

    A patrol must cross a large open area it cannot bypass. Doctrine has it use traveling overwatch to save time but switch to bounding overwatch at a specific point. What is that point?

    • When the element reaches the midpoint of the open area
    • When the element comes within about 250 metres of the far sideCorrect
    • When the element has been exposed for more than five minutes
    • When the element loses sight of its near-side rally point

    Why: Doctrine combines the two techniques across a large open area: traveling overwatch to save time, and bounding overwatch at any point where contact may be expected, including once the patrol comes within small-arms range of the far side, given as about 250 metres. The midpoint, an elapsed-time trigger and losing sight of a rally point are not the stated triggers, although the patrol leader may also emplace machine guns on the near side to overwatch the crossing. Primary reference: ATP 3-21.8, Infantry Platoon and Squad, INCL C1, 11 January 2024, para 7-71, p. 7-22.

25. Question 24

    A casualty is being handed to an aircrew with the engines running and hearing protection in place. What technique does the packaging guideline give for conveying the wounds in that environment?

    • Write the list of injuries on a strip of tape and apply the tape across the casualty's forehead
    • Point to each wound, including controlled or suspected bleeding, and have the receiving team confirmCorrect
    • Defer the clinical report until the aircraft is airborne and the crew can hear over the intercom
    • Shout the whole report twice over the engine noise and then ask the crew chief for a thumbs-up

    Why: For handoffs in high ambient noise such as hot loading, the guideline directs the sending provider to point to each wound, especially areas of controlled or suspected haemorrhage, with the receiving team confirming each one, and it recommends units pre-coordinate an intercom device for aircraft-side voice. Shouting cannot be verified, marking the forehead is not the described method, and deferring the report leaves the receiving team blind during the highest-risk minutes of the move. Primary reference: JTS CPG, En Route Care Patient Packaging, 21 Aug 2024, p. 4.

26. Question 25

    TECC distinguishes a tourniquet downgrade from a tourniquet conversion. Which description matches conversion?

    • Pack the wound fully, apply a pressure dressing, then loosen the originalCorrect
    • Apply a new device nearer the wound
    • Remove the device entirely and elevate the limb above the heart
    • Exchange a windlass device for a ratcheting one at the same site

    Why: In TECC's terms, conversion means fully exposing the wound, packing it completely with hemostatic or plain gauze, properly applying a pressure dressing, and only then loosening the prior tourniquet, which is left in place. Downgrade is the different maneuver of applying a new tourniquet directly to skin at an appropriate location above the injury and then loosening the first. The distinction matters because conversion moves the casualty off tourniquet control altogether, while downgrade keeps tourniquet control and simply relocates it. Neither involves removing the original device from the limb, and neither is a device exchange. Primary reference: TECC Guidelines for BLS/ALS Clinicians (C-TECC, 2025), Indirect Threat Care/Warm Zone, p. 6. Cross-reference: Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TCCC) Guidelines, 01 May 2026, Tactical Field Care, Tourniquet Reassessment, p. 8.