Free NCLEX-PN practice questions with answers

Twenty-five original, source-verified NCLEX-PN questions with full answers and rationale below, free to read, no account required. A new set every day.

1. Question 1

   An LPN is monitoring a postoperative client receiving scheduled opioid analgesics. Which parameters should the LPN assess at regular intervals as part of this monitoring? Select all that apply.

   • Pain level using a self-report toolCorrect
   • Respiratory rate, rhythm, and depthCorrect
   • Sedation level using a standardized sedation scaleCorrect
   • Hair color and texture
   • Ability to recite the date and time of day for reasons unrelated to safety monitoring

   Why: Clients on opioids should be assessed at regular intervals for pain level, respiratory status including rate, rhythm, and depth, and sedation level using a standardized sedation scale, because opioid-induced respiratory depression is a significant risk, particularly in the first 24 hours after surgery. Hair color and texture and general orientation checks unrelated to safety are not part of this specific monitoring bundle. Primary reference: Ackley, Nursing Diagnosis Handbook (Elsevier, 11th Edition), Acute Pain, p. 642.

2. Question 2

   An LPN is reinforcing established foot-care teaching for an older adult client with a painful corn on the fifth toe. Which instruction is correct?

   • Refer the client to a podiatrist rather than attempting to trim or treat the corn independentlyCorrect
   • Apply an oval corn pad directly over the corn before putting on shoes
   • Soak the foot in hot water and file the corn down at home with a pumice stone
   • Apply an over-the-counter keratolytic wart remover to dissolve the corn

   Why: Established foot-care teaching directs clients with a corn to be referred to a podiatrist rather than self-treating, because self-treatment can worsen tissue injury in clients with reduced sensation or circulation. Oval corn pads are specifically discouraged because they can increase pressure on the corn, and home methods such as hot-water soaking with pumice filing or over-the-counter keratolytic products are not part of the recommended teaching. Primary reference: Potter & Perry, Fundamentals of Nursing (Elsevier, 11th Edition), Hygiene, p. 924.

3. Question 3

   A patient is admitted with a persistent cough, fever, and a chest x-ray suggestive of pulmonary tuberculosis, pending confirmatory sputum results. Which action should the LPN take when entering this patient's room?

   • Wear a fitted N95 respirator and keep the door closedCorrect
   • Wear a standard surgical mask and keep the door open
   • Wear clean gloves only, since tuberculosis spreads by direct contact
   • No special precautions are needed until sputum results confirm the diagnosis

   Why: Suspected tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, which include placing the patient in a room with monitored negative air pressure, keeping the door closed, and wearing a fitted respiratory protection device such as an N95 respirator whenever entering the room. Waiting for laboratory confirmation before initiating precautions would allow ongoing exposure of staff and other patients to an airborne pathogen. Primary reference: Ackley, Nursing Diagnosis Handbook (Elsevier, 11th Edition), Risk for Infection, p. 530.

4. Question 4

   An LPN is reviewing infection-control education materials that describe the body sites most commonly affected by health care-associated infections. Which sites are included among the five most common? (Select all that apply.)

   • Urinary tractCorrect
   • Lower respiratory tractCorrect
   • Surgical woundCorrect
   • BloodstreamCorrect
   • Gallbladder
   • Thyroid gland

   Why: The five major health care-associated infection sites are the urinary tract, lower respiratory tract, surgical wound, bloodstream, and the gastrointestinal tract, most often due to Clostridioides difficile. The gallbladder and thyroid gland are not among the sites most commonly implicated in health care-associated infection. Primary reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine (McGraw Hill, 21st Edition), Chapter 142: Infections Acquired in Health Care Facilities, p. 1129.

5. Question 5

   An LPN reviews a client's Braden Scale score as part of the established pressure injury risk assessment. A lower total numerical score on this scale indicates which of the following?

   • A higher risk for pressure injury developmentCorrect
   • A lower risk for pressure injury development
   • That the client requires no further reassessment
   • That the client has excellent nutritional status

   Why: On the Braden Scale, lower numerical scores indicate that the client is at higher risk for skin breakdown, so a falling score should prompt the LPN to reinforce pressure-injury prevention measures. A lower score does not mean lower risk, does not eliminate the need for scheduled reassessment, and reflects overall risk across several subscales rather than nutritional status alone. Primary reference: Potter & Perry, Fundamentals of Nursing (Elsevier, 11th Edition), Skin Integrity and Wound Care, p. 1334.

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7. Question 6

   A client being treated in the intensive care unit for gram-negative sepsis develops oozing from venipuncture sites, scattered petechiae, and blood-tinged secretions from the endotracheal tube. The LPN should recognize this presentation as most consistent with which complication?

   • Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)Correct
   • A febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
   • Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
   • An expected finding of septic shock that requires no further evaluation

   Why: Disseminated intravascular coagulation is most commonly seen in clients with systemic infections caused by gram-negative bacteria and produces simultaneous bleeding, such as oozing from venipuncture sites, mucous membranes, and petechiae, as clotting factors and platelets are consumed; this combination of bleeding from multiple sites in a septic client should be reported promptly rather than viewed as an expected, low-priority finding. The other options do not account for concurrent bleeding from multiple unrelated sites in a client who has not received a transfusion. Primary reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine (McGraw Hill, 21st Edition), Chapter 115 (Disorders of Platelets and Vessel Wall), p. 905.

8. Question 7

   An LPN is preparing to call the RN using the SBAR format about a client whose condition has changed. Which pieces of information belong in the "Background" portion of the report? Select all that apply.

   • The client's admitting diagnosis and date of admissionCorrect
   • The LPN's recommendation for what should happen next
   • A list of the client's current medications and allergiesCorrect
   • The most recent vital signs and relevant lab resultsCorrect
   • A statement of what the LPN thinks the problem is

   Why: The Background portion of SBAR includes pertinent background information such as the admitting diagnosis and admission date, current medications and allergies, and the most recent vital signs and lab results; the recommendation and the caller's assessment of the problem belong in the separate Assessment and Recommendation portions of the tool, not Background. Primary reference: Carpenito, Nursing Care Plans: Transitional Patient & Family Centered Care (Wolters Kluwer/LWW, 6th Edition), Chapter 2, Communication: The Critical Key to Preventing Adverse Events, p. 14.

9. Question 8

   A client taking tadalafil for benign prostatic hyperplasia symptoms develops chest pain and is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. What should the LPN do first?

   • Withhold the nitroglycerin and immediately notify the RN or providerCorrect
   • Administer the nitroglycerin as ordered without delay
   • Administer the nitroglycerin only if the chest pain lasts more than 30 minutes
   • Administer a double dose of nitroglycerin to compensate for the tadalafil

   Why: Concomitant use of a PDE5 inhibitor such as tadalafil with nitrates can cause a severe, potentially life-threatening drop in blood pressure, so the nitroglycerin should be withheld and the RN or provider notified immediately rather than given as ordered, delayed by a symptom-duration threshold, or doubled. Primary reference: Pharmacology for Nurses (OpenStax/Rice University, 2024), Urinary and Bladder Disorder Drugs, 35.5 Phosphodiesterase 5 Inhibitors, p. 910.

10. Question 9

    A school-age child is brought to the clinic by a relative. Which findings should prompt the LPN to consider possible child abuse and report concerns to the supervising nurse? (Select all that apply.)

    • The child appears fearful when asked about how a bruise occurredCorrect
    • The child has an unexplained injury with a story that keeps changingCorrect
    • The child is up to date on all recommended immunizations
    • The child goes to unusual lengths to hide an injury from viewCorrect
    • The child's growth chart shows steady, expected growth for age

    Why: Fear when discussing an injury, an unexplained or inconsistent injury history, and deliberately concealing an injury are each specifically listed as recognized signs of possible child abuse that warrant reporting. Being current on immunizations and having normal growth are reassuring, unrelated findings that do not suggest abuse. Primary reference: Neeb's Fundamentals of Mental Health Nursing (F.A. Davis, 4th Edition), Chapter 22: Victims of Abuse and Violence, p. 357.

11. Question 10

    A male client newly started on spironolactone for heart failure reports breast tenderness and swelling after several weeks of therapy. What should the LPN understand about this finding?

    • It is a known adverse effect of spironolactone related to its aldosterone-antagonist activity and should be reportedCorrect
    • It is an unrelated finding that requires no follow-up
    • It indicates the client has developed hyperkalemia
    • It is a sign that the client's heart failure is worsening

    Why: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing, aldosterone-antagonist diuretic, may lead to gynecomastia or erectile dysfunction in male clients and abnormal bleeding in female clients, so this finding should be reported and documented as a known drug effect rather than dismissed. Gynecomastia is not itself a sign of hyperkalemia or of worsening heart failure, though hyperkalemia is a separate risk of this drug class that would present with different findings. Primary reference: Gersch et al. (eds.), Pharmacology Made Incredibly Easy (Wolters Kluwer, 4th Edition), Chapter 8: Genitourinary drugs, Potassium-sparing diuretics, p. 433.

12. Question 11

    An LPN is reinforcing discharge teaching that the RN developed for a client who had an intraoperative anaphylactic reaction confirmed to be caused by natural rubber latex. Which instruction should the LPN include as part of this client's established self-management plan?

    • Wear a medical-alert bracelet identifying the latex allergy and carry an emergency kit with nonlatex gloves, an antihistamine, and an autoinjectable epinephrine syringeCorrect
    • Schedule repeat latex skin-prick testing before every future medical or dental appointment
    • Avoid all future contact with health care facilities except for true emergencies
    • Request that all future blood draws be performed without gloves of any kind

    Why: An established client outcome for confirmed natural rubber latex allergy is that the client will state the importance of wearing a medical-alert bracelet and of carrying an emergency kit containing nonlatex gloves, antihistamines, and an autoinjectable epinephrine syringe, so that any future accidental exposure can be recognized and treated promptly. Repeat testing before every visit is unnecessary once the allergy is confirmed, avoiding all care is not a therapeutic goal, and gloves are still required for standard precautions during blood draws -- the substitution should be a nonlatex material such as nitrile, not the absence of gloves. Primary reference: Nursing Diagnosis Handbook (Ackley, Elsevier, 11th Edition), Latex Allergy Response, p. 562.

13. Question 12

    An LPN is caring for a 91-year-old client with advanced dementia who becomes visibly more agitated each time staff correct her when she insists it is still 1965 and asks for her deceased husband. The established plan of care leaves the decision about ongoing reorientation to the nurse's judgment based on the client's response. What should the LPN do?

    • Continue reorienting the client at every interaction so she does not lose touch with reality
    • Stop repeatedly correcting the client's statements about the date and her husband, since this approach is increasing her agitationCorrect
    • Ask the RN to order an anti-anxiety medication before attempting any further reorientation
    • Avoid conversing with the client at all until the agitation resolves on its own

    Why: In later stages of dementia, repeated attempts at reality orientation frequently increase frustration and agitation rather than helping, because progressive brain changes have made it impossible for the client to retain corrected information; the nurse is expected to judge whether reorienting the client is effective and to stop the approach if it worsens agitation, substituting comfort measures such as redirection or reminiscing about a meaningful past event instead. Continuing to reorient this client directly contradicts what her behavior is showing, medication should not substitute for adjusting the communication approach before it is tried, and withdrawing from the client entirely neglects her emotional support needs. Primary reference: Neeb's Fundamentals of Mental Health Nursing (F.A. Davis, 4th Edition), Chapter 16: Neurocognitive Disorders: Delirium and Dementia, pp. 256, 382.

14. Question 13

    A client on long-term diuretic therapy has muscle weakness. The LPN reviews the cardiac monitor and should recognize which finding as consistent with hypokalemia?

    • Flattened T waves with a prominent U waveCorrect
    • Peaked T waves
    • A shortened QT interval
    • Sine-wave QRS complexes

    Why: Hypokalemia produces a characteristic progression of ECG changes, including flattened T waves and the appearance of a prominent U wave, reflecting delayed ventricular repolarization. Peaked T waves and sine-wave QRS complexes are hyperkalemic findings, not hypokalemic ones, and hypokalemia is more classically associated with a prolonged, not shortened, QT-U interval. Primary reference: Current Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2024 (McGraw Hill, 63rd Edition), Chapter 23: Electrolyte & Acid-Base Disorders, p. 888.

15. Question 14

    A client with a glioblastoma (brain tumor) is scheduled to begin chemotherapy with an IV nitrosourea such as carmustine. What is the primary reason this class of alkylating agent, rather than a nitrogen mustard such as cyclophosphamide, is selected to treat this client's tumor?

    • Nitrosoureas are able to cross the blood-brain barrier, allowing the drug to reach the tumor.Correct
    • Nitrosoureas cause less myelosuppression than nitrogen mustards.
    • Nitrosoureas are given orally, avoiding the need for IV access.
    • Nitrosoureas do not require body-surface-area-based dosing.

    Why: Nitrosoureas are classified as alkylating agents, yet they have an advantage that nitrogen mustards do not: they cross the blood-brain barrier, which allows them to pass into the brain and treat cancers such as glioblastomas and other brain tumors. Nitrosoureas are not described as causing less myelosuppression, carmustine specifically is given intravenously (lomustine, a related nitrosourea, is oral), and dosing based on body surface area is common across many alkylating agents, not a distinguishing feature. Primary reference: Pharmacology for Nurses (OpenStax/Rice University, 2024), Chapter 8: Introduction to Cancer Therapy and Cancer Drugs, Section 8.2 Chemotherapeutic Drugs -- Alkylating Drugs, p. 236.

16. Question 15

    During a well-child visit, the LPN observes that an 18-month-old is not yet walking independently and has very limited single words. The caregiver says, "I'm sure she'll catch up." What is the LPN's most appropriate action?

    • Reassure the caregiver that this is normal and no follow-up is needed.
    • Document the findings and report them to the RN or provider for developmental screening and possible referral.Correct
    • Tell the caregiver to enroll the child in a physical therapy program immediately.
    • Wait until the next scheduled well-child visit in 6 months to reassess.

    Why: When findings suggest a possible developmental delay, the appropriate action is to document what was observed and report it to the RN or provider so that developmental screening and early intervention referral, if needed, can proceed promptly, since early intervention improves outcomes. Independently reassuring the caregiver, ordering therapy, or waiting six months could all delay identification of a treatable delay and fall outside the LPN's scope of collecting and reporting data rather than diagnosing or prescribing treatment. Primary reference: Population Health for Nurses (OpenStax, 2024), Chapter 26: Health Promotion and Maintenance Across the Lifespan, 26.2 Newborn, Infant, and Toddler Health, p. 680.

17. Question 16

    An LPN is reviewing the health record of a client with newly diagnosed chronic hepatitis C. Which associated conditions should the LPN recognize as recognized extrahepatic complications of this infection that may require additional monitoring or referral? Select all that apply.

    • Mixed cryoglobulinemia with vasculitic skin lesionsCorrect
    • Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritisCorrect
    • Increased risk of B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphomaCorrect
    • Spontaneous, complete resolution of infection without treatment in most adults
    • Increased risk of gallstones from cystic duct obstruction
    • Hepatic steatosis, particularly with genotype 3 infectionCorrect

    Why: HCV is a pathogenic factor in mixed cryoglobulinemia and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, confers a 20-30% or greater increased risk of B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and hepatic steatosis is a particular feature of genotype 3 infection. Chronic hepatitis develops in a high rate (greater than 80%) of infected persons rather than resolving spontaneously in most adults, and gallstone disease from cystic duct obstruction is not a recognized HCV complication in the source material. Primary reference: Papadakis et al. (eds.), Current Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2024 (McGraw Hill, 63rd Edition), Chapter 18: Liver, Biliary Tract, & Pancreas Disorders, p. 684.

18. Question 17

    A client with type 2 diabetes has been hospitalized twice this year for hyperglycemia related to a pattern of high-sugar food choices and little physical activity. The client tells the LPN, "I know I should change, but old habits are hard to break," and has not yet made any changes. The RN's established plan of care addresses this using the diagnosis Risk-Prone Health Behavior. Which finding is most consistent with this diagnosis rather than Noncompliance?

    • The client has stopped filling insulin prescriptions altogether
    • The client demonstrates an inability to modify an unhealthy lifestyle despite awareness that it is affecting his health statusCorrect
    • The client has missed the last three scheduled follow-up appointments
    • Laboratory results provide objective evidence the client is not following the prescribed regimen

    Why: Risk-Prone Health Behavior describes an impaired ability to modify lifestyle or behaviors in a manner that improves health status, including nonacceptance or minimization of a health status change and failure to take action despite awareness. Noncompliance, by contrast, is defined by behavior that fails to coincide with an agreed-upon therapeutic plan, evidenced by findings such as unfilled prescriptions, missed appointments, or objective test results showing nonadherence. Primary reference: Carpenito, Nursing Care Plans: Transitional Patient & Family Centered Care (Wolters Kluwer/LWW, 6th Edition), Risk-Prone Health Behavior, p. 185.

19. Question 18

    A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is implementing the established plan of care for a client whose spouse has been the primary caregiver at home for 8 months. The client is now being transferred from the medical unit to a subacute rehabilitation facility. During the transfer conversation, the spouse says little, avoids eye contact, and states, "I don't know how much more of this I can do." What should the LPN do first?

    • Tell the spouse that respite care will be arranged as soon as possible
    • Report the spouse's statement and behavior to the RN so caregiver strain can be reassessedCorrect
    • Reassure the spouse that the transfer will make things easier at home
    • Document the statement in the chart and continue with the scheduled transfer tasks

    Why: Screening for caregiver role strain is recommended at the onset of caregiving, at regular intervals, and specifically with changes in the care recipient's status or care transitions such as a facility transfer. The LPN implementing the plan of care collects and reports this new subjective and behavioral data promptly so the RN can reassess the caregiver and revise the plan if indicated; arranging respite or independently reassuring the spouse skips the reassessment step, and simply documenting without reporting delays needed follow-up. Primary reference: Ackley, Nursing Diagnosis Handbook (Elsevier, 11th Edition), Caregiver Role Strain, p. 203.

20. Question 19

    A client with cirrhosis is at risk for hepatic encephalopathy. The LPN should recognize which of the following as factors that can precipitate an episode? Select all that apply.

    • Gastrointestinal bleedingCorrect
    • ConstipationCorrect
    • Use of opioids or sedativesCorrect
    • Increased dietary fiber intake
    • A diuretic-induced low potassium levelCorrect

    Why: Recognized precipitants of hepatic encephalopathy include gastrointestinal bleeding (which increases protein/nitrogen load in the bowel), constipation, opioids and sedatives (which are cleared more slowly in liver disease and depress mental status), and potassium deficiency from diuretics, along with alkalosis and systemic or hepatic infection. Increased dietary fiber is not a precipitant; adequate bowel elimination is actually part of managing encephalopathy, so fiber and other measures that promote regular stooling are protective rather than harmful. Primary reference: Current Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2024 (McGraw Hill, 63rd Edition), Chapter 18: Liver, Biliary Tract, & Pancreas Disorders, p. 706.

21. Question 20

    The LPN is implementing the established plan of care for a client with a history of prolonged poor oral intake who is beginning enteral tube feedings today.

    Why: In early treatment of malnutrition, the priority is preventing refeeding syndrome, a range of electrolyte alterations — particularly falling phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium — that occurs when calories are reintroduced after a period of markedly reduced or absent intake; patients refed too quickly are at risk for heart failure from the resulting fluid and electrolyte shifts. When an early drop in phosphorus develops, the established approach is to correct the electrolyte abnormality while advancing the feeding cautiously rather than stopping it altogether or increasing the rate, since the goal is a slow, careful return to full nutrition rather than an abrupt change in either direction. Primary reference: Papadakis et al. (eds.), Current Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2024 (McGraw Hill, 63rd Edition), Chapter 31: Nutrition, Nutritional Disorders & Obesity, p. 1257.

22. Question 21

    An LPN is collecting data on a client who is struggling to choose between two treatment options for a new diagnosis. Which findings should the LPN recognize as consistent with the nursing diagnosis Decisional Conflict? Select all that apply.

    • Verbalized uncertainty about which choice to makeCorrect
    • Vacillation among the alternative choicesCorrect
    • Physical signs of distress, such as increased heart rate and restlessnessCorrect
    • A clearly stated, unwavering choice made without hesitation
    • Delayed decision makingCorrect
    • Calm acceptance of a single option with no further questions

    Why: Defining characteristics of Decisional Conflict include verbalized uncertainty about choices, vacillation among alternatives, delayed decision making, and physical signs of distress or tension such as increased heart rate, increased muscle tension, or restlessness. A clearly stated, unwavering choice or calm acceptance without further questions reflects the absence of decisional conflict rather than its presence. Primary reference: Carpenito, Nursing Care Plans: Transitional Patient & Family Centered Care (Wolters Kluwer/LWW, 6th Edition), Decisional Conflict, p. 182.

23. Question 22

    A home visiting LPN is providing anticipatory guidance to a first-time parent of a healthy newborn to help prevent abusive head trauma (shaken baby syndrome). Which teaching points should the LPN include? Select all that apply.

    • It is safe to place a crying infant who will not settle into a secure crib and step away briefly to calm downCorrect
    • An infant's neck muscles and disproportionately heavy head make even brief, forceful shaking dangerousCorrect
    • Caregivers experiencing high stress should be encouraged to use counseling services or parenting classesCorrect
    • Vigorous shaking is an acceptable way to rouse an infant who feeds poorly
    • Family engagement and support for household financial stress can help reduce caregiver strain linked to abuseCorrect

    Why: Abusive head trauma is a preventable form of physical child abuse that occurs when a caregiver forcefully shakes or jerks an infant; because infants have vulnerable neck muscles and disproportionately large, heavy heads, even brief or seemingly minor force can cause serious brain injury. Prevention strategies include teaching caregivers safe alternatives for managing a crying infant, such as placing the baby safely in the crib and stepping away briefly, offering resources such as counseling and parenting classes to reduce caregiver stress, and supporting household financial security and family engagement. Shaking an infant for any reason, including to rouse a poor feeder, is never an appropriate or safe action. Primary reference: Population Health for Nurses (OpenStax, 1st Edition), Chapter 26, p. 680.

24. Question 23

    Comparing two clients' plans of care, an LPN notes one client has the diagnosis Risk-Prone Health Behavior and another has Risk for Ineffective Self-Health Management. What is the key distinction between these two diagnoses that the LPN should understand when implementing each plan?

    • Risk-Prone Health Behavior focuses on unhealthy habits or lifestyles that can aggravate an existing condition or contribute to a new disorder, while Risk for Ineffective Self-Health Management focuses on barriers to managing an already-established treatment regimenCorrect
    • The two diagnoses are interchangeable and may be used for any client with a chronic illness
    • Risk-Prone Health Behavior applies only to substance use disorders
    • Risk for Ineffective Self-Health Management applies only to pediatric clients

    Why: Risk for Ineffective Self-Health Management is used to help a person and family identify barriers to managing an established condition's treatment regimen and prevent complications at home, whereas Risk-Prone Health Behavior focuses on unhealthy habits or lifestyle patterns that can aggravate an existing condition or contribute to developing a new disorder. Neither diagnosis is limited to substance use or to pediatric clients, and they are not interchangeable. Primary reference: Carpenito, Nursing Care Plans: Transitional Patient & Family Centered Care (Wolters Kluwer/LWW, 6th Edition), Risk for Ineffective Self-Health Management, p. 191.

25. Question 24

    A client with advanced chronic kidney disease who takes a magnesium-containing antacid for indigestion is found by the LPN to have absent deep tendon reflexes and a blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg, down from a baseline of 132/76 mm Hg. Which laboratory abnormality should the LPN suspect and report?

    • HypermagnesemiaCorrect
    • Hypokalemia
    • Hyperglycemia
    • Hypernatremia

    Why: Hypermagnesemia is almost always the result of advanced chronic kidney disease with impaired magnesium excretion, and antacids are an underrecognized source of magnesium intake; its clinical findings include decreased deep tendon reflexes, muscle weakness, and hypotension, which match this client's presentation precisely. The other electrolyte and glucose abnormalities listed do not produce this specific combination of absent reflexes with hypotension, so the LPN should report the suspicion of hypermagnesemia to the RN. Primary reference: Papadakis et al. (eds.), Current Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2024 (McGraw Hill, 63rd Edition), Chapter 23: Electrolyte & Acid-Base Disorders, p. 899.

26. Question 25

    A client's established medication teaching plan includes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the LPN's reinforced teaching?

    • "I'll need to avoid aged cheeses, red wine, and smoked or processed meats."Correct
    • "I can stop this medication abruptly as soon as I feel better."
    • "This medication works within a day or two of starting it."
    • "I should take this medication with plenty of dairy products for best absorption."

    Why: MAOIs require a strict low-tyramine diet because tyramine-rich foods such as aged cheeses, red wine, and smoked or processed meats can trigger a potentially fatal hypertensive crisis. Antidepressants including MAOIs should not be stopped abruptly, they require several weeks of use before improvement is expected rather than a day or two, and there is no dietary requirement for dairy for absorption. Primary reference: Neeb's Fundamentals of Mental Health Nursing (F.A. Davis, 4th Edition), Chapter 11: Depressive Disorders, p. 187.