Free NHA CPCT/A practice questions with answers

Twenty-five original, source-verified NHA CPCT/A questions with full answers and rationale below, free to read, no account required. A new set every day.

1. Question 1

   Water makes up approximately what percentage of an adult's body weight?

   • About 90%
   • About 25%
   • About 60%Correct
   • About 40%

   Why: Water makes up approximately 60% of an adult's body weight, compared with about 80% of an infant's body weight, reflecting how vital water is to the body's functioning. A figure as low as 25% or 40% understates the proportion of water in the adult body, while 90% overstates it beyond even the infant proportion. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 21, PDF p. 6.

2. Question 2

   A coagulation test requires a full 2.7 mL light-blue-top tube, but the tube received by the lab is visibly only half full. What should happen to this specimen?

   • The result should be reported as automatically normal
   • It should be tested and the result reported with no adjustment
   • It should be rejected for insufficient quantity and re-collectedCorrect
   • The lab should add saline to bring the tube to the expected volume

   Why: A coagulation tube's additive amount is calibrated for a full draw, so a tube that is only half full has too much anticoagulant relative to the plasma present, which would skew the clotting time result in a way that does not reflect the patient's true coagulation status. Testing it anyway, or reporting an automatic result, would produce misleading information, and adding saline does not fix the underlying additive imbalance and would introduce its own dilution error. The only appropriate response to a specimen with an insufficient quantity is rejection and re-collection. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 25, PDF p. 6.

3. Question 3

   When preparing written take-home instructions for a patient with significant visual impairment, the technician should

   • use a large font and consider color contrast and glare on the pageCorrect
   • skip written materials entirely since the patient cannot read them
   • use the office's standard small print to keep the document short
   • print the materials in a light gray font to appear less clinical

   Why: Increasing font size and paying attention to contrast and glare makes printed material more usable for a patient whose vision is impaired but not necessarily absent, which is why this source specifically recommends those adjustments rather than dropping written materials altogether. Standard small print or a low-contrast light gray font would make the same document harder for this patient to read, working against the goal of accessible communication. Adapting materials this way still allows the patient to take reference information home even if some vision remains impaired. Primary reference: Kinn's The Medical Assistant, 15th Edition, Chapter 22, PDF p. 5.

4. Question 4

   A technician is preparing to record a 12-lead ECG. How many electrodes are placed on the patient's body to produce the full set of 12 leads?

   • Twelve
   • TenCorrect
   • Four
   • Six

   Why: Ten electrodes, placed on the arms, legs, and chest, are used to generate the twelve views that make up a standard 12-lead ECG. Twelve matches the number of resulting leads, not the number of electrodes actually attached to the patient. Six only accounts for the chest electrodes and leaves out the limb electrodes. Four is far fewer than the number actually applied for a complete 12-lead tracing. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 16, PDF p. 4. Cross-reference: Kinn's The Medical Assistant, 15th Edition, PDF p. 6.

5. Question 5

   According to housekeeping controls for infection prevention, when must work surfaces be decontaminated with a disinfectant?

   • Only once per day on a fixed schedule, regardless of how much activity occurred on that surface
   • Only when the surface looks visibly soiled with dust, debris, or other obvious residue
   • Only before the very first patient encounter that is scheduled to begin that day
   • Right after any spill of blood or body fluids happens, when each procedure wraps up, and again at the close of every shiftCorrect

   Why: Surfaces need a disinfectant wipe-down right after a blood or body-fluid spill happens, once each procedure is finished, and once more at the close of every shift. A single once-daily decontamination misses the after-spill and after-each-procedure timing specified here. The requirement is not limited to visibly soiled surfaces; it also applies after every procedure and at shift's end regardless of visible soil. Decontaminating only before the first patient of the day misses the after-spill and end-of-procedure timing specified here. Primary reference: Kinn's The Medical Assistant, 15th Edition, Chapter 19, PDF p. 11.

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7. Question 6

   While giving a back rub after a patient's bath, the technician should monitor pulse and blood pressure most closely in a patient with a history of which condition?

   • Seasonal allergies
   • Hypertension or dysrhythmiaCorrect
   • Mild myopia
   • A healed ankle sprain

   Why: A back rub is given after the patient's bath, and because massage can affect circulation, the technician should monitor the pulse and blood pressure of a patient who has a history of hypertension or an irregular heart rhythm. Allergies, mild vision problems, and a previously healed ankle injury do not carry the same cardiovascular concern during a back rub. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 18, PDF p. 4.

8. Question 7

   A phlebotomist finds an ID band hanging on an IV pole next to an inpatient's bed rather than attached to the patient. What should the phlebotomist do with the information on that band?

   • Use it, since any ID band found in the patient's room is reliable
   • Attach it to the current patient's wrist before proceeding
   • Not use it for identification, since it may belong to a previous occupant of that bedCorrect
   • Use it only if the name matches the requisition

   Why: An ID band sometimes ends up removed from an arm, for example when an IV site becomes swollen, and left near the bed rather than reattached, which means a band found on an IV pole or table cannot be trusted to belong to the current occupant of that bed. Simply matching the name to the requisition is not a safe substitute, because the very risk is that a stale band could coincidentally look plausible. The correct response is to verify identity through an accepted alternate method, such as having the patient's nurse confirm ID, rather than relying on a detached band. Primary reference: Phlebotomy Essentials, 8th Edition, Chapter 8, PDF p. 566.

9. Question 8

   Which term describes the resting state of a myocardial cell before an electrical impulse reaches it, a state that produces a flat line on the ECG?

   • Depolarization
   • Isoelectric deflection
   • Repolarization
   • PolarizationCorrect

   Why: Polarization describes the myocardial wall's resting state, during which no electrical activity is occurring and the ECG records a flat line. Depolarization is the opposite event, when a cell is actively stimulated and the muscle contracts. Repolarization describes the cell returning to its resting state after depolarization, not the resting state itself. The fourth option names a deflection pattern rather than a physiologic state, so it does not fit the description given. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 16, PDF p. 2. Cross-reference: Kinn's The Medical Assistant, 15th Edition, PDF p. 3.

10. Question 9

    Roughly what share of older adults reside in a long-term care facility rather than in the community?

    • About 50%
    • About 5%Correct
    • About 80%
    • About 25%

    Why: Only about 5% of older adults actually reside in a long-term care facility, since most remain in their own homes or other community settings with support. Figures like 50%, 25%, or 80% would greatly overstate how common such placement actually is. This low percentage reflects the many community resources, such as adult day care and assisted living, that help seniors remain independent. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 32, PDF p. 5.

11. Question 10

    Which of the following is a recognized purpose of administering an enema to a patient?

    • To treat an existing urinary tract infection directly
    • To clear the colon before a diagnostic test or surgeryCorrect
    • To increase the patient's serum potassium level significantly
    • To lower an elevated body temperature quickly

    Why: An enema, the instillation of a solution into the colon through the anus, may be given to promote defecation, to clear the colon ahead of a diagnostic test or abdominal surgery, to manage constipation or fecal impaction, or to administer medication. Raising serum potassium, treating a urinary tract infection, and lowering body temperature are not among the purposes described for giving an enema. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 23, PDF p. 3.

12. Question 11

    Which statement correctly distinguishes a disinfectant from a skin antiseptic in a phlebotomy setting?

    • A disinfectant is used on surfaces and equipment and is too harsh for skin, while an antiseptic is safe for skin useCorrect
    • Only antiseptics are capable of killing bacterial spores
    • A disinfectant and an antiseptic are the same class of chemical and can be substituted for each other
    • A disinfectant is milder than an antiseptic and is preferred for cleaning a venipuncture site

    Why: Disinfectants are formulated to remove or kill microorganisms on hard surfaces and instruments and are considerably stronger and more corrosive than skin antiseptics, so they are never applied directly to a patient. An antiseptic, by contrast, is mild enough for skin contact and is used to prepare a collection site. Treating the two as interchangeable or claiming the disinfectant is the gentler product reverses their actual roles. Antiseptics are not sporicidal; only certain sporicidal disinfectants, such as properly diluted bleach, or sterilization reliably kill bacterial spores. Primary reference: Phlebotomy Essentials, 8th Edition, Chapter 7, PDF p. 476.

13. Question 12

    What term describes an infection that a patient acquires during a stay in a healthcare facility, rather than one present before admission?

    • An opportunistic infection from a weak host
    • A chronic infection lasting a long time
    • A nosocomial (healthcare-associated) infectionCorrect
    • A latent infection with cycling symptoms

    Why: A nosocomial, or healthcare-associated, infection is one a patient acquires during care in a healthcare facility rather than before admission. A latent infection instead describes a persistent infection whose symptoms cycle between relapse and remission, which is unrelated to where the infection was acquired. An opportunistic infection is caused by an organism that is not usually pathogenic but that infects a host with a weakened immune system, a different classification standard. A chronic infection describes how long symptoms persist, not the setting in which the infection originated. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 9, PDF p. 5. Cross-reference: Kinn's The Medical Assistant, 15th Edition, PDF p. 16.

14. Question 13

    Who is usually responsible for initiating a referral for a hospitalized patient's follow-up care needs once that need has been identified?

    • The patient's insurance carrier reviewing the claim
    • The nurse, communicating with the physician or providerCorrect
    • The patient care technician, entirely on their own initiative
    • The admissions department representative handling paperwork

    Why: Referrals are usually made by the nurse in communication with the physician or health care provider, and should occur as soon as possible after the need is identified. The patient care technician does not independently initiate referrals, and neither the admissions department nor the insurance carrier is responsible for identifying or making this clinical referral. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 17, PDF p. 3.

15. Question 14

    A state legislature passes a new law setting licensing requirements for healthcare workers. This type of law, created directly by a governing body rather than built up through court rulings, is known as what?

    • Common law
    • Precedent
    • Statutory lawCorrect
    • Case law

    Why: Statutory law is the law that federal, state, and local governments enact directly, such as a legislature passing licensing requirements. Common law, also called case law, instead evolves as courts rule on specific legal questions and generally follow precedent, or earlier rulings on similar issues, rather than being written by a legislature. Because the licensing requirement in this scenario comes from a legislature rather than from a court decision, it is an example of statutory law rather than common law, case law, or precedent. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6, PDF p. 2.

16. Question 15

    When draping a patient for a physical examination, which principle should the PCT follow?

    • Leave the patient fully covered for the entire exam
    • Uncover just a single body area at any one timeCorrect
    • Drape only the areas the patient specifically requests
    • Remove all drapes at the start for the provider's convenience

    Why: Proper draping technique calls for uncovering just one region of the patient at a given moment, which protects modesty and comfort throughout the visit. Removing all drapes at once, keeping the patient fully covered the whole time, or leaving the choice entirely up to the patient's requests would each fail to balance the provider's need to examine the body with the patient's need for privacy. Exposing one area at a time is the standard that meets both goals. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 14, PDF p. 3.

17. Question 16

    The HITECH Act, passed in 2009, made which change regarding HIPAA compliance?

    • It made business associates directly liable for complying with HIPAACorrect
    • It eliminated the need for a separate HIPAA Security Rule entirely
    • It repealed the HIPAA Privacy Rule for all covered entities
    • It removed all penalties for violations involving electronic health records

    Why: The HITECH Act made business associates directly liable for complying with HIPAA, whereas before this change liability rested more heavily on covered entities alone. It also increased enforcement rather than eliminating any existing rule, so the Security Rule was not removed. It did not repeal the Privacy Rule, and it strengthened rather than removed penalties tied to violations involving electronic health information. Primary reference: Kinn's The Medical Assistant, 15th Edition, Chapter 4, PDF p. 5.

18. Question 17

    A technician needs to step out of the exam room briefly while a patient's electronic chart is still open on the computer screen. What should the technician do before leaving?

    • Turn the monitor to face the wall
    • Close the patient's file and lock the computerCorrect
    • Leave the file open since only staff have office access
    • Ask the patient to watch the screen until returning

    Why: An open chart left unattended could be viewed by anyone who enters the room, including other patients or visitors, so closing the file and locking the computer protects that information under confidentiality requirements. Leaving the file open assumes only authorized staff will pass through the room, which is not a reliable safeguard in a busy clinical area. Turning the monitor away or asking the patient to monitor the screen does not close the chart or lock access to it, so neither action meets the safeguard this source describes. Primary reference: Kinn's The Medical Assistant, 15th Edition, Chapter 21, PDF p. 12.

19. Question 18

    Which of the following is a specialized skill that a patient care technician typically performs, beyond the tasks of a nursing assistant?

    • Serving a patient's meal tray
    • Making an occupied bed
    • Assisting a patient with bathing
    • PhlebotomyCorrect

    Why: The patient care technician role adds higher-level skills such as phlebotomy, electrocardiography, and oxygen delivery on top of the basic patient-care duties every nursing assistant already performs. Bathing a patient, making an occupied bed, and serving a meal tray are routine activities-of-daily-living tasks that fall within basic nursing-assistant duties rather than the technician's added skill set. Phlebotomy is the option that reflects the expanded scope described for the role. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2, PDF p. 1.

20. Question 19

    Which practice is prohibited when disposing of contaminated sharps?

    • Using a labeled, leak-proof, puncture-resistant biohazard container
    • Discarding a used needle into the container immediately after use
    • Reaching into a sharps container by hand to retrieve or push down an itemCorrect
    • Keeping the sharps container as close as possible to the work area

    Why: Contaminated sharps must never be handled in a way that makes a worker reach into the container to grasp or press down an item, because that invites a needlestick. Keeping the container as close as possible to where sharps are used is required, since it shortens the distance a used sharp is carried. Discarding a used needle into the container right after use is the correct practice. A puncture-resistant, leak-proof container with a biohazard label is the required type for sharps. Primary reference: Kinn's The Medical Assistant, 15th Edition, Chapter 19, PDF p. 10.

21. Question 20

    After a nurse gives a patient an oral medication, which steps complete safe administration?

    • Wait until the end of the shift to write anything down
    • Document only if the patient later reports a problem
    • Leave the room right away without watching the patient take it
    • Confirm the dose was swallowed, watch the response, and document at onceCorrect

    Why: Safe oral administration ends with confirming that the patient actually swallowed the dose, watching how the patient responds, and documenting right away. Leaving before the dose is taken, saving documentation for the end of the shift, or charting only if a problem comes up would each skip or delay one of those steps. A PCT does not give medications but helps by reporting any change in the patient's condition to the nurse afterward. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 20, PDF p. 3.

22. Question 21

    At the end of a shift, a technician has handwritten report sheets containing patient information that are no longer needed. What should the technician do with them?

    • Leave them in the break room for the next shift to find
    • Place them in the regular trash can
    • Destroy them using a shredder or a confidential disposal binCorrect
    • Keep them in a personal bag to review later at home

    Why: Report sheets that carry patient information are expected to be destroyed through a shredder or a confidential disposal bin at the end of the shift, since ordinary trash and an unattended break room do not protect the information from being read by people who have no need to see it. Taking the sheets home compounds the problem by removing patient information from the facility altogether. Proper destruction through a shredder or confidential bin is the expected way to dispose of them. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6, PDF p. 5.

23. Question 22

    An outpatient asks the phlebotomist why the physician ordered a particular blood test. How should the phlebotomist typically respond?

    • Give a full explanation of every possible diagnosis the test could rule in or out
    • Refuse to speak to the patient at all until the test is complete
    • Guess at the most likely reason based on the tests ordered
    • Explain that it is best for the doctor or nurse to discuss the purpose of the test with themCorrect

    Why: A single test is often ordered to investigate several possible conditions at once, so a phlebotomist's guess at 'why' could easily be wrong, misleading, or needlessly alarming, which is why that explanation is left to the ordering physician or nurse who actually knows the clinical picture. Refusing to speak with the patient at all is unnecessarily cold and not what is asked here; redirecting the specific question about purpose is different from ignoring the patient entirely. Offering a full differential diagnosis is well outside a phlebotomist's role and risks exactly the confusion this guidance is meant to avoid. Primary reference: Phlebotomy Essentials, 8th Edition, Chapter 8, PDF p. 571.

24. Question 23

    A technician has just moved a patient out of a room with a small fire and is about to leave to get an extinguisher. Before fighting the fire, what should the technician do next in the standard sequence?

    • Open nearby windows to help clear the smoke
    • Immediately begin sweeping the extinguisher nozzle side to side
    • Wait for the fire department to arrive before doing anything else
    • Sound the alarm to alert others in the buildingCorrect

    Why: After getting a patient to safety, the next step in the standard sequence is to sound the alarm so others in the building are alerted, before moving on to confining or extinguishing the fire. Beginning to operate an extinguisher, opening windows to clear smoke, or waiting for outside responders to arrive are not the step that immediately follows rescue in this sequence. Alerting others promptly comes before those later actions. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 10, PDF p. 2.

25. Question 24

    A patient's illness has stopped responding to treatments aimed at a cure, and the care team now focuses on comfort, symptom relief, and psychological and spiritual support instead of aggressive treatment. What type of care is this?

    • Rehabilitative care
    • Acute surgical care
    • Curative care
    • Palliative careCorrect

    Why: Palliative care is active, complete care focused on comfort, symptom relief, and psychological, social, and spiritual support. It can be given at any stage of a serious illness, alongside curative treatment, and it becomes the whole focus when cure is no longer the goal, as for this patient. Curative care aggressively pursues a cure, the approach that has stopped working here. Rehabilitative and acute surgical care aim to restore function or treat an acute problem, not to shift the focus to comfort. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 35, PDF p. 2.

26. Question 25

    When communicating with a dying patient, which of the following should a patient care technician avoid?

    • Offering false reassuranceCorrect
    • Providing privacy
    • Being attentive
    • Showing respect

    Why: Offering false reassurance to a dying patient should be avoided, since it can undermine trust and prevent honest communication about the patient's condition and needs. Showing respect, being attentive, and providing privacy are all recommended practices when communicating with a dying patient, not behaviors to avoid. Honest, supportive communication is considered more helpful than false comfort. Primary reference: Fundamental Concepts and Skills for the Patient Care Technician, 2nd Edition, Chapter 35, PDF p. 3.